Monday, October 5, 2009

Alvin's Scribepost for October 5, 2009

Mr.Harbeck's / Mr.Bache's question why is 4/4 the same as 4÷4 ?

In my opinion I think they are both the same thing because 4 over 4 is also equal to one whole which equals 1, and 4÷4 is saying how many times can 4 go into 4 the answer is 1. So they are both equal to 1 so I think in my opinoin they are both the same thing.

1 comment:

Harvey841 said...

Spelt opinion wrong, mate.

Other than that, and a need to make a picture, good job.

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